Re: Blues scale: is this accurate?

"Steve Latham" <llatham@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote in message 
news:kqv7k.220$cv5.33@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
> "Tom K." <tkorth1@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote in message 
> news:vKmdnXRHWOiJ-cPVnZ2dnUVZ_hqdnZ2d@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>>
>> "David Webber" <dave@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote in message 
>> news:g3la44$604$1$8300dec7@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>>>
>>>
>>> A lot of early blues would finish a chorus with the sequence of notes
>>>
>>> b3 2 1
>>>
>>> You can argue it is (by now) a cliché, but you can't argue it away.
You 
>>> can possibly argue in some cases that the 2 is a passing note, but 
>>> "scales" contain passing notes - that's their point.   Arguing too 
>>> strictly in favour of the hexatonic blues scale is like arguing that
it 
>>> cannot happen.
>>>
>>
>> Or you can hear the ^2 as implying dominant harmony with the ^b3 as a 
>> decoration (appoggiatura, passing tone, etc.) - a more CPP approach, to

>> be sure.  Naturally, this would be highly dependant on context.
>
>
> Or, could the b3 REALLY be a #9 so it's a Dominant V7#9?
>

Maybe I missed something, Steve - but wouldn't the b3/#9 would be a Tonic 
7#9 (or I7 M/m) as we were talking about scale degree B3?

> b3-2 over a V7 chord reminds me a lot of the movement of viio7 - V6/5.

Which would be ^b6 - 5, no?  ^b3 - 2 reminds me more of viio7/V - V.

Tom K.


> Steve
>