Re: Unanswered Question #1

"Steve Latham" <llatham@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote in message 
news:dyBKj.5132$BT1.4338@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>> It therefore seems obvious to me that as the era of major/minor
gradually 
>> took over, the use of it in minor pieces was not so much borrowing from

>> the major mode but borrowing from history - it sounded right because it

>> had sounded right in the past.
>
> Hmmm. We do have to go with that kind of logic for Phrygian. But like I 
> said, I doubt anyone was thinking "this comes from Lydian mode" rather 
> than "this comes from the key of the dominant". But I speculate.

I very strongly doubt anyone was thinking either of those.    I suspect
they 
were thinking  "These new-fangled thirdy thingy harmonies are all very
well, 
but surely no-one wants to *finish* on a *minor* one!    I'll sharpen it. 
There, that sounds much better."   :-)

Dave
-- 
David Webber
Author of 'Mozart the Music Processor'
http://www.mozart.co.uk
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